I don't want to take sides here, but the comparison to Hitler was clearly meant to discredit Jorge's point of view by association. I think what Jorge meant to point out was that this is a well-known logical fallacy (see
http://www.nizkor.org/features/falla...sociation.html). Somewhat like implying that anyone who paints landscapes is like Hitler (i.e., since Hitler painted landscapes), and that his/her arguments should therefore be distrusted.
See also Godwin's Law:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hitler_rule
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